About the ACE Exam

Welcome to the first lecture! I thought it would be a great idea to get a feel of how ACE asks some of their questions. This course is packed with questions on top of questions on top of questions. The more familiar you are with these questions and the way that it is worded, the better you will feel ready for the exam. Here are 25 questions just to give you a gauge of where you are in your readiness for the exam. Try and get above a 72% if you can, but don't worry if you don't come close. These questions are HARD, the more comfortable you feel with the hard questions the better you will be able to do on the actual exam. READY, GO, AND BEGIN!


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25 Questions, answers at the bottom



1. Which of the following would be considered a negative physical activity factor toward exercise adherence?

 

A. Intensity too high

B. Intensity too low

C. Intensity is high too quickly

D. Intensity is too low in the beginning

 

2. Social media is an excellent tool in which to promote healthy living and gain clients. All of the following are benefits of using social media except which?

 

A. Creating awareness of fitness and health

B. Promoting results in your social media

C. Getting clients to align their social media with their fitness goals

D. Advertising fitness deals and promotions

 

3. What does IFT stand for?

 

A. Integrated fitness training

B. Integral fullness training

C. Integrated Fit Technique

D. None of the above

 

4. Ace utilizes what acronym to program their cardiovascular endurance exercises?

 

A. FITT-PV

B. IFT

C. FITT-VP

D. ALL THE ABOVE

 

5. In a postural assessment, you notice that the internal rotators of the shoulder are tight. From the list below, which muscles are tight AND would need to be stretched?

 

A. Subscapularis, teres major, latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major

B. Levator scapular, pectoralis minor, obliques, trapezius

C. Pectoralis major and teres minor, serratus anterior, levator scapular

D. Rectus abdominis, subscapularis, pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi

 

6. The client is performing a push-up. Which muscles might the client feel fatigued and are working as the agonists?

 

A. Pectoralis minor, levator scapular

B. Rectus abdomins, triceps

C. Pectorais major, triceps

D. Pectoralis major, subscapularis

 

7. A high school athlete is performing at a track meet. They are getting ready for the long jump competition. To increase their flexibility, they would need to stretch their lower legs and lower back. This flexibility in the lower body ultimately leads to them performing at a higher level. What would you call this muscle relationship?

 

A. Length tension of the lower legs sensing the flexibility as the stretch continues 

B. Muscle spindles activated to allow contraction and relaxation of those lower body muscles

C. Autogenic inhibition, to allow the lower leg muscles to relax while the lower back is contracting

D. Golgi reflex to relax those muscles while the athlete is activating other muscle fibers

 

8. What is the recommended number of sets for a client with the goal of hypertrophy?

 

A. 3-6

B. 2-4

C. 1-3

D. 4-5

 

9. The risk of a heart attack in cardiac clients is how many more times likely when performing work out?

 

A. 3x more likely

B. 2x more likely

C. 5x more likely

D. 6x more likely

 

10. Amt of work in a given unit of time is called?

 

A. Anaerobic power

B. Aerobic power

C. Glycolytic

D. Phosphagen 

 

11. Which of the following is right about open-kinetic chain movements (what are they used for)?

 

A. Used to help with control and stabilization

B. Used to help with range of motion 

C. Used to improve control and movement efficiency

D. All the above

 

12. Which part of the body should you look out for when a client performs Apley's scratch test for shoulder mobility?

 

A. They should touch their serratus anterior

B. They should not be able to touch the medial border of the scapula

C. The should not be able to touch the inferior border of the scapula

D. None of the above


  The inability to touch the medial border of the contralateral scapula

 

13.What is the purpose of pre-participation screening when you first meet a client?

A. To get to know the client

B. To establish rapport with the client

C. To assess if they have pulmonary issues or trouble breathing

D. To detect at-risk individuals

  

  

  14. When a posterior pelvic tilt is determined, which muscles should you aim to strengthen through restorative exercise?

 

A. Hip Flexors and Erector Spinae

B. Hip flexors and rectus abdominis

C. Serratus anterior and hamstrings

D. Two of the above

 

  15.A piece of special exercise equipment is not working correctly. Yet people are still using it. What is the BEST ACTION TO TAKE?


A. Avoidance

B. Transfer

C. Reduction

D. Only A and B

E. All the above

F. None of the above

  

  

16.What is the last stage of stability and mobility training?


A. Static balance

B. Stability

C. Stability and movement

D. All the above

 

  17. What muscle could be hypertonic and cause an imbalance with flat-back posture?

 

A. Rectus abdominis

B. Levator scapula

C. Serratus anterior

D. Obliques

E. None of the above

 

  18. What is one-rep maximum evaluating?


A. Strength

B. Power strength

C. Flexibility and power

D. Absolute strength

  

  

  19. What is the difference between Golgi tendon and muscle spindle?


A. Golgi tendon causes contraction

B. Muscle spindle causes contraction

C. Muscle spindle causes relaxation

D. Golgi tendon causes contraction and relaxation

  

  

  20. What will be activated after 15 seconds of a stretch?


A. Autogenic inhibition

B. Muscle spindle activation

C. Stretch reflex

D. Golgi tendon

  

  

21. The Karvonen formula uses all of the following to determine MHR except...

  

A. Genetics

B. Body size

C. Exercise modality

D. All are used in the Karvonen formula

  

  

22.What is the most crucial variable to monitor when creating a training session for a client?


A. Intensity

B. Duration

C. Modification

D. All the above

  

  23.Which of the following exercises is best suited for improving hip mobility?

  

 A. Push-ups

B. Sit-ups and pelvic tilts

C. Bent-knee marches done in a supine plane

D. Lumbar rotational movements to strengthen the core

 

  24. A client is in phase 2: how many days should they do cardio exercise?

 

A. 2-3 days

B. 1-5 days

C. 6-7 days

D. 1-2 

E. days

  

25. What field test should a college soccer player perform to assess their anaerobic power?


A. Pro agility test

B. Sprint test

C. RM on squat and bench

D. Vertical jump

E. Standing long jump and vertical jump test


  1. A
  2. C
  3. A
  4. C
  5. A
  6. C
  7. A
  8. A
  9. A
  10. A
  11. C
  12. D
  13. D
  14. A
  15. E
  16. A
  17. A
  18. D
  19. D
  20. D
  21. A
  22. C
  23. A
  24. E



Now that you took that practice quiz. Let's go over the systems of the body from head to toe. Here are some quick notes on what to know about the body.

Complete and Continue